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Question DS-52 from 11th Ed.
mdh3000
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[Question deleted. OG is a banned source; it is illegal to post OG questions on the web. Please read (and follow!) the forum guidelines.]

The correct answer is D, either statement alone is sufficient.

However, I thought you couldn't divide both sides of an equation by "x" if one side is "x^2" because of the fact that x might be a negative number?

Or does that not apply to this situation?

Thanks!
Mike
Sudhan
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[question deleted; see above]

It does not apply here.

if the case is like, x^2yz > 12xy, then the inequality might change based on the sign. You cannot divide.

But, here
x^2yz= 12xy is an equation. You can divide by common factor xy.

Hence D.

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mdh3000
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Thanks Sudhan!

That's right! It's only matter with inequalities because the inequality sign would reverse if you were dividing by a negative x, but it would stay the same if it were a positive x.

mdh
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Question DS-52 from 11th Ed.
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