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Guest
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If 0<x<1, why is x^4 - x^5 < x^2 - X^3?
Please help. Thanks. |
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Rey Fernandez
MGMAT STAFF
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Very good solution by Mikus. I just want to point out that normally dividing both sides of an inequality by a variable amount is dangerous territory because of the possibility that the variable amount could be zero or a negative number. It works out well in this problem because of the constraint that 0<x<1. When we divide both sides by x^2, we know it's a positive, nonzero number. Also, when we divide both sides by (1-x), again we know it's a positive, nonzero number.
Again, nice work, Mikus! Rey |
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