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I wanted to inquire about the idiom above...
even if we correct the "was" issue and remove it...leaving us with:
"was neither prestigious nor often played in concert halls" IS THIS CORRECT? Don't we need both sides of the NOR to be parallel?
That would be correct, because it is parallel: 'prestigious' and 'often played' are both adjectives.
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Still a bit confused between 3 and 4.
Can someone help explain, though?
Sure. Here they are, with splits in bold text (all unbolded text is common to both choices):
3. Classical guitar
was not prestigious and was not often played in concert halls until
Andres Segovia revived it in the mid-twentieth century,
after he was won over by the sound despite
the instrument's relative obscurity.
4.Classical guitar
did not have prestige nor was it performed often in concert halls until
its revival by Andres Segovia, who in the mid-twentieth century was won over by the
instrument's sound despite
its relative obscurity.
Parallelism: (C) has parallel 'was not X and was not Y' construction. (D) has a mismatch of the active 'did not have' with the passive 'was it performed' (akin to 'it was performed').
Voice: (C) has the active 'Andres Segovia revived it' and (D) has the passive 'its revival by Andres Segovia.' Active voice is usually more concise. The GMAT typically prefers active voice, unless active voice is wrong for some other reason.
Concision and Clarity: If you count the bolded text, you will see that (D) is slightly longer. Though the pronoun in 'its relative obscurity' at the end of (D) is not wrong, as it has the antecedent 'Classical guitar,' there is a lot of text between the two. In (C), 'the instrument's relative obscurity' is clearer.
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is there a rule for having been... that is it to be used only as adjective modifier..similar to resulting from ???
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what is the difference in the above usage and the usage in this sentence
D.Rather than accept the conventional wisdom that the earth was flat, Christopher Columbus sailed west to see whether he could reach India, having been sent by the king and queen of Spain.
Source:MGMAT
OA D
is it that ... here is modifier Columbus SAILED...
then shouldn't we be able to use the same for
"was revived by Andres Segovia " -- Choice B
Please explain...really confused
Hi Sputnik,
The 'having been sent' phrase could be seen as modifying either the entire clause 'Christopher Columbus sailed west' (how or why he sailed) or just the subject 'Christopher Columbus' (who was sent by the king and queen).
Consider this sentence, with the phrase moved:
Christopher Columbus, having been sent by the king and queen of Spain, sailed west to see whether he could reach India.
'Having been sent' is actually another form of the past perfect tense: First, C.C. was sent. Then, he sailed west. Two past actions, one happening before the other.